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The recent edits by 24.64.223.203 contain some strong, but unsourced claims. Someone who knows the subject might want to check this. Rl 08:49, 20 August 2005 (UTC)[reply]

I don't really know about it per se, but it sounds like the alternative medicine claptrap used to sell Candida treaments to people. As far as references, from what I've seen they're almost all from books published by treatment purveyors, with no scholarly journal articles. I'll edit the 2nd paragraph to tone down POV and present it as the opinion of alternative medicine proponents. --KSevcik 16:04, 31 August 2005 (UTC)[reply]

Sounds like rubbish to me. Anyone using allopathy to describe mainstream medicine is asking for trouble. Also had at look at his/her talk page. Not exactly exemplary!!! If you could incorporate this somehow objectively then that would be excellent! -- postglock 05:26, 4 September 2005 (UTC)[reply]

I'm a little confused as to whether Phenotypic switching "is" dimorphism or if it is similar to it. I am going to remove the line declaring that it IS dimorphism for now since the next paragraph starts with an apparent contradiction to this statement. If someone can give me any input in favor against this edit, i would appreciate it Dinosaurdarrell 05:45, 23 September 2005 (UTC)[reply]

I'm not sure what this means, but I found this article regarding Undycylenic acid and the 'switch' between the yeast form of C. Albicans and the 'hyphae' form: acid inhibits morphogenesis of Candida albicans.

It has been taken care off. It should be more clear now. Garnhami (talk) 20:41, 4 May 2017 (UTC)[reply]

hey! i am sorry, but c. albicans is not really a sexual fungus! it is rathter classified as an asexual fungus, as no meiosis has been described for this yeast. C. albicans has only a parasexual cycle, which has only been observed in vitro.i am also agree with you that c.albicans will show only parasexual cycl only.....

But i dont know how to update the page! Can you help me? —The preceding unsigned comment was added by 81.13.144.74 (talk) 18:06, 24 February 2007 (UTC).[reply]

Just go back to the article and click on edit this page, make the change, explain what you did in the edit summary line, and click Save page. —The preceding unsigned comment was added by Pyrospirit (talk • contribs) 18:09, 24 February 2007 (UTC).[reply]

Are antibiotics like penicillin and streptomycin going to be effective against candida albicans? why or why not? Discuss where and what structure the antibiotics act on.

  My understanding is that antibiotics are only effective against bacteria, not fungi.  In fact, I am given to understand that candida infections can be triggered or aggravated by the use of antibiotics, because the antibiotics can kill off bacteria that are important for keeping the candida in check.  —Bob Blaylock (talk) 12:58, 2 May 2010 (UTC)[reply]

Also what is its gram reaction? What about it's structure prevents its staining? —Preceding unsigned comment added by 67.187.154.189 (talk) 02:43, 3 February 2008 (UTC)[reply]

  My understanding regarding this is that Gram staining is only really applicable to bacteria; it is used to divide most bacteria into two groups—Gram-positive and Gram-negative.  Candida holds on quite well to the crystal violet, and so stains deep purple, when Gram-stained, but this really doesn't mean anything.  —Bob Blaylock (talk) 12:58, 2 May 2010 (UTC)[reply]

Greatly appreciated would be the consideration by one of the article's contributors for the purpose of clarifying the statement

One of the classically studied strains that undergoes phenotypic switching is WO-1...

Is it meant

Of the classically studied strains, one that undergoes phenotypic switching is WO-1...?

Or is it meant

Of the classically studied strains that undergo phenotypic switching, one is WO-1...? (There are, in fact, other strains that undergo phenotypic switching. Yet, are they considered by the article's contributors to be classically studied?)

In the statement's rewording into the two different forms, one can recognize the distinction in meanings. It can be presumed that the first rewording represents the intended meaning of the statement; however, if what is meant is represented by the second statement, then the statement should be

One of the classically studied strains that undergo phenotypic switching is WO-1...

Nonetheless, may we rephrase the statement to one of the reworded examples in order to eliminate any confusion and explicitly state the intended meaning?

Thank you. Drphilharmonic (talk) 18:04, 20 January 2012 (UTC)[reply]

Since this is a disease, would it not be appropriate to have a section regarding diagnosis and symptoms and such? I am trying to differentiate between Tinea Cruris and Candida Albicans. Thanks — Preceding unsigned comment added by 2001:5B0:21FF:1CF0:0:0:0:36 (talk) 03:26, 14 October 2013 (UTC)[reply]

"C. albicans, together with C. tropicalis, C. parapsilosis and C. glabrata, is responsible for 50–90% of all cases of candidiasis in humans."

The singular verb 'is' implies that C. Albicans is the only subject of the sentence, and so:

"C. albicans is responsible for 50–90% of all cases of candidiasis in humans."

I don't think that's what's actually meant (although I could be wrong) and I would suggest that it be rephrased to:

"C. albicans, C. tropicalis, C. parapsilosis and C. glabrata, are together responsible for 50–90% of all cases of candidiasis in humans."

I'm going to make this change, but wanted to leave some additional explanation. 38.88.11.34 (talk) 17:08, 12 December 2017 (UTC)[reply]

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Perhaps a seperate section in light of Wikipietime (talk) 12:42, 24 October 2023 (UTC)[reply]

This article was the subject of a Wiki Education Foundation-supported course assignment, between 19 August 2024 and 10 December 2024. Further details are available on the course page. Student editor(s): CactusFish (article contribs).

— Assignment last updated by CactusFish (talk) 20:15, 20 September 2024 (UTC)[reply]